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To: Tom Hua who wrote (130)1/6/2000 8:50:00 PM
From: Eric mulay  Read Replies (1) | Respond to of 203
 
i didnt see this posted anyplace here,, but its kind of interesting

sec.gov



To: Tom Hua who wrote (130)1/7/2000 9:07:00 AM
From: John Curtis  Respond to of 203
 
Tom: "No one files Form 144's anymore...." EH!!?!

The definition of Form 144: Used to indicate an intent to sell unregistered shares in the open market. Important Note: A 144 filer may not be an insider by the SEC's definition, and may not have to file a Form 4 if and when the shares are sold.

Therefore folks that must file a 144 CANNOT use this filing in lieu of filing a separate indication of having actually sold the shares, unless the insider ISN'T really an insider as defined above(see note). Indeed, even then, with the 144 filing the non-insider is merely signaling an intent to sell. What they do afterwards is their own business. So yes they could have sold. But then again......

Therefore, either the above two individuals are true insiders, which means they in fact haven't sold.

Or, the above two are NOT insiders in the SEC defined sense of the word. Even so, you can't tell when they sold, except to say it must have been some time AFTER the filing of the 144. HEH!

Bottom line? Even if they sold shortly after the filing date, they've missed one hell of a run-up.. Be that as it may, does anyone know the actual size of insider holdings? Insider, or "insider" selling is an issue of percentages, no? ;-)

Now let's see how today goes...

Regards!

John~