To: DMaA who wrote (16874 ) 4/12/2000 3:35:00 PM From: PartyTime Read Replies (1) | Respond to of 769667
MY QUESTION: Do poor folk contribute to charity more--on a percentage of income basis--than do rich folk? YOUR RESPONSE: If a rich person invests his money in a factory does it help poor people more than if he gave it all to street musicians? _____________ I suppose, like you, I can say you didn't answer my question. But let's examine your question: International arms dealers provide African UNITA rebels weapons made from rich folk who own factories, in exchange for diamonds which ultimately end up in the De Beers coffeurs. De Beers then creates the image of a diamond shortage so it can sell diamonds to lovers at outrageous prices. Indeed, there's been more than a few public relations campaigns in this country, hinting how the larger diamond shows the greater is the love in the romance. OK, so now we've got African rebels who've got plentiful arms of destruction due to plentiful diamond sales. And what now must the official African government do? The official African government then makes deals with U.S. oil companies relative to offshore oil exploration, so that they, the African government, can also buy weapons of destruction, sufficient to repel the rebels. Guess which U.S. adminstration backed the UNITA rebels in the late 80's? Guess which U.S. adminsistration was considered a friend of oil? You got it! Your main man's dad. Guess whose most likely to continue to carry the same old banner. You got it! Your main man, Shrub, Jr. [reference for the above: NYT, Apr 6, 2000] OK, so who are the rich folk? What are they really 'giving' in the above scenario? Now, who are the poor folk? Are they caught and squeezed in a condition not of their own making? Do they help each other in the process? Nice earthly game, isn't it?