To: mc who wrote (862 ) 8/29/2000 4:11:11 PM From: Dan Duchardt Respond to of 1426 mc, Your point is well taken. I agree with what you say, and that accounts for my hedge word "nearly". This was never meant to be a precise calculation, just a rough estimate of what it would cost to insure against investment losses. For some estimates, including this one, a zero sum approximation is good enough. For many other things is would be terrible. Nearly is a relative term. If you look at the total (not net) gains and total losses taken during the course of a year, they far exceed the net gain or loss in the market, and therefore must be comparable to one another. I have no hard data to calculate the total gains and total losses, but it can be inferred from the volatility, float turnover, and that average net 10% market gain. Insurance premiums collected on all trades would have to cover the benefits paid on all losing trades. With total losses being nearly the same as total gains, that would amount to approximately 1/2 the total losses plus 1/2 the total gains, unless there was a huge "deductible" to limit benefits to large losses only. Only if the total gains far exceeded the total losses would it be possible to insure against all losses at modest premiums.In fact, we know historically, that the market averages about a 10% return per year. Well above inflation. Actually, there is a chart out there somewhere that shows inflation adjusted market returns. There is a period of 16 years surrounding the 1970s where the market trailed inflation on average. Still no better place to park your money considering the non-adjusted growth, except for maybe real estate if you lived in the right part of the world. Since the low of that period, adjusted market returns have been a lot better, especially in the 90s. Dan