SI
SI
discoversearch

We've detected that you're using an ad content blocking browser plug-in or feature. Ads provide a critical source of revenue to the continued operation of Silicon Investor.  We ask that you disable ad blocking while on Silicon Investor in the best interests of our community.  If you are not using an ad blocker but are still receiving this message, make sure your browser's tracking protection is set to the 'standard' level.
Technology Stocks : Intel Corporation (INTC) -- Ignore unavailable to you. Want to Upgrade?


To: Joe NYC who wrote (120044)12/1/2000 7:59:18 AM
From: Road Walker  Respond to of 186894
 
Joe,

re: How is it that the act of Florida legislature is seen as circumventing the popular vote when in fact they would be reaffirming it, as opposed to the judicial branch that may in fact circumvent the popular vote.

There is a vast difference between clarifying (modifying if you like) the rules on the way votes are counted, and actually directly electing a slate of electors. The implications of the Florida legislatures actions are scary.

Imagine a Democrat controlled legislature, and a future election where there are unconfirmed reports of vote fraud by Republicans. Should the Democrat controlled legislature have the power to arbitrarily overturn the popular vote, and appoint it's own set of electors? Or what if Florida had a Democrat controlled legislature, and they decided that the Seminole county absentee votes shouldn't be counted, and put in their own slate of Gore electors? If Florida opens this can of worms, do you really believe that it won't be used in the future?

Bush will take office in January, to quote Elmer, "get over it". We don't need to pile legislative garbage onto our electoral system. This isn't even an issue for this election, but it could be a huge issue for all future elections.

John



To: Joe NYC who wrote (120044)12/1/2000 2:51:54 PM
From: ratan lal  Respond to of 186894
 
How is it that the act of Florida legislature is seen as circumventing the popular vote when in fact they would be reaffirming it, as opposed to the judicial branch that may in fact circumvent the popular vote.



SC just ordered a hand count. How can that, in any way, be construed as circumventing the popular vote??