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To: Josh Sliver who wrote (11988)2/7/2001 1:51:17 PM
From: Paul Senior  Respond to of 78512
 
I'll jump in with an answer before someone who really knows gives the correct response.

If the transaction is 1:1, stock for stock, then I say it depends on what is meant by shares outstanding.

I say that B, if B is the buyer, with 500 shares outstanding, has to give out a total of 300 shares for each share of A outstanding. If all of B's 500 shares are already distributed among B's shareholders, then B has to come up with 300 additional shares by issuing stock (300). But if only 200 of B's shares are distributed among shareholders -- and the other 300 are held by the company as treasury shares (allocated to be used for business purposes)in the company's equity section (the total thus still being 500 shares outstanding), then B could issue those 300 for A's shares. So after the deal is done, in that case the answer is 500 shares issued and outstanding.

Similar logic if A is the buyer. Answers depend on how much, if any, treasury stock is available.

Paul
who is wrong many, many times



To: Josh Sliver who wrote (11988)2/8/2001 12:56:21 AM
From: James Clarke  Read Replies (1) | Respond to of 78512
 
Simple answer is yes. Paul, like any good value investor, loves to complicate the simple and simplify the complicated. Thats just the way our brains work. Like he said though you have to really dig into most stock merger deals to figure them out, especially if you own the buyer.