To: Raymond Duray who wrote (8877 ) 10/1/2001 10:07:04 AM From: kodiak_bull Read Replies (2) | Respond to of 23153 Sorry, Raimundo: As I noted, "cui bono" exists today in Spanish as "cuyo bueno," to whose good, or better said, to whose benefit. Here's a good example:minneapolisfed.org Typical of the muddled (mis) usage of qui bono for cui bono is the following snippet, where the author actually misuses the quote in the title, then uses the correct Latin in the text. Whatever happened to proofreading? <<Qui Bono? An American Veteran's Views on Non-Jewish Toleration and Propagation of the Extermination Thesis Dr. CHARLES E. WEBER (Presented at the 1981 Revisionist Conference) According to Cicero, L. Cassius Lohnginus Ravilla, who was Consul of the Roman Republic in 127 B.C., admonished judges involved in criminal trials to investigate the question to whose advantage a criminal act might have been committed. His famous question, which has had an influence on western juridical practice ever since, consisted of only two words: "Cui bono?">>vho.org The problem with "qui bono" is that it is ungrammatical. "Cui" is a possessive adjectival, which modifies the noun, "bono"--therefore "whose good" or "whose benefit"? But "qui" is a pronomial, "who" and, when linked with another noun, "bono," becomes "who good." Which reminds me of the famous Ed Meese memo (which by the way is much more grammatical, if less syntactical), "What think?" Let me sum up my view, if I may: 1. "Who good?" What think? Think bad. 2. "Whose benefit?" What think? Think good. Kb P.S. The site you linked posits "non compas mentis" for "non compos mentis," not a good error, in my book. Also "ad infiitum" for "ad infinitum." Harrumph. I did enjoy your Italian translation. Ben' fatto.