To: St_Bill who wrote (31289 ) 10/8/2001 6:44:25 PM From: The Philosopher Read Replies (2) | Respond to First of all, of course, one must define underpaying and mistreating. Mistreating generally isn't so hard to define, except on the fringes. But what is underpaying? If the prevailing wage in a country is 50 cents an hour, is it underpaying workers to pay them that? Suppose a US company goes into an area where there is 30% unemployment and no unemployment insurance program. Is ANYTHING underpaying the workers they employ? Aren't the workers better off with whatever they get, than with nothing? Is it underpaying those workers if the company pays them $1.00 an hour to perform essentially the same task that workers in the US get $11.00 an hour to perform? But what wouldn't be underpaying in that case? Should the US company be expected to pay $11 per hour in the other country? If so, wouldn't it make more sense to keep the work in the US, in which case the workers are worse off than if they had their $1.00 per hour jobs?
