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To: yard_man who wrote (23629)12/4/2001 9:37:51 AM
From: AllansAlias  Read Replies (1) | Respond to of 209892
 
No, 2) does not imply any sense of history, 1) does though. For 2), all one need ask is this: "Did the change in asset levels exceed that which would result from the change in price?" If it did, then buyers or sellers are active in allocating the money in a certain direction.

For example, if OTC drops 4% but the market drops only 2%, then one can assume that people pulled money out of OTC.


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