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To: Ilaine who wrote (11799)12/12/2001 9:14:19 PM
From: LLCF  Read Replies (1) | Respond to of 74559
 
If a bank takes all it's depositors money @ 1% and invests it in overnight "federal funds market" @ 1.5% it has no risk and makes quite a profit. This is a simple model of a bank that has 100% of it's loans backed by assets. No money has been created by the bank. In reality the bank being very large could loan a portion of this money out for different terms, etc.. because they know everyone won't come in the same day and want money. Even if they did, they could sell or borrow against their longer term securities. In addition of course they can loan out their own capital. This is infinitely more 'conservative' than what goes on now [many different 'tiers' of capital, some at the fed. etc] where fractional reserves allow money creation.

Under your definition there would clearly be no banks.

DAK



To: Ilaine who wrote (11799)12/12/2001 11:06:09 PM
From: smolejv@gmx.net  Read Replies (2) | Respond to of 74559
 
hold it, why dragging these unreal 100% number into the discussion? The requirements of the law regarding the reserves are pretty clear. I dont know the exact numbers myself (they're actually one of the few handles the central bank has on financial sector) but anyhow it is closer to 10 than to 100 percent - anybody here with real numbers? -. So, discussing the case of 100% reserves required is fine - for a fresman course on "let me start you on banking". It shows fast, there's no banks with 100% reserve requirement. Just the deposit boxes, as DAK pointed out.