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To: Wyätt Gwyön who wrote (110138)1/2/2002 7:28:02 PM
From: carranza2  Read Replies (1) | Respond to of 152472
 
I meant that if co. XYZ has a cash stash of $1bn which is available for payment of dividends but does not pay them, then the share price of XYZ should be the same as that of a comparably cash-equipped dividend-declaring company.

Assuming this is true, and it should be from a strictly arithmetical standpoint, it should not make any difference whether dividends are paid.

But the assumption may actually not be true. A company hoarding its cash increases its options and flexibility, making it a more formidable competitor, thereby increasing its share price. Such a company can fund more R&D, engage in more ventures, etc. That is the fallacy in looking at dividend payments as a gauge of a corporation's financial health or prospects.

I'll take my dividend in a higher stock price, especially if the tax consequences are that I pay capital gains instead of income taxes.

A good reason to be like Buffett and not rely too much on the rear-view mirror when investing.