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Pastimes : SI Grammar and Spelling Lab -- Ignore unavailable to you. Want to Upgrade?

To: tyc:> who wrote (3782)	2/17/2002 6:00:47 PM
From: E	Read Replies (2) \| Respond to of 4711

Hmmm. I think they mean two different things and according to what you're trying to evoke, you takes your choice [sic]. I tried to think of how to express this conviction of mine by referring to the rules of grammar, but got tangled in words like gerund and possessive. But I thought of a way of explaining why I think 'it' is okay there. Tell me if it seems reasonable. For 'it,' let's substitute 'Rosamund.' I'll give two sentences, one using 'Rosamund' (ie 'it'), the other 'Rosamund's' (ie 'its'). 1) The image of Rosamund sitting in the windowseat reading and rereading his love letters filled Marmaduke's heart with tenderness." 2) The image of Rosamund's sitting in the windowseat reading and rereading his love letters filled Marmaduke's heart with tenderness." They really do mean two different things, I think. Could someone explain this by referring to the applicable rules of grammar? Yamakita, you can I think.... Edit: When I read that, it seems to me that the object of the preposition 'of' in 1 above is Rosamund and the object of the preposition 'of' in 2 above is Rosamund's sitting in the windowseat... Just a thought.