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To: TimF who wrote (1433)3/6/2002 7:18:20 AM
From: Lane3  Read Replies (2) | Respond to of 21057
 
Probably because heterosexuality is more common then homosexuality.

Yes, it would seem so.

I'm sure I've posted at least a dozen times the observation that people are notoriously incompetent at assessing risk. This is another example. The classic is how much people fear flying when your chance of death is much greater in an automobile. Fear of gay pedophiles, while real, is all out of proportion to the actual risk. Their daughters are much more at risk.

Karen



To: TimF who wrote (1433)3/6/2002 3:37:12 PM
From: Neocon  Read Replies (1) | Respond to of 21057
 
You are right. The best estimates of male homosexuality in the population put it at about 3% (Kinsey's numbers were ridiculously skewed), but even assuming the 10%, that would mean that heterosexuals outnumber homosexuals 9 to 1, and therefore that homosexuals abuse more frequently........


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