To: uthabros who wrote (66 ) 4/11/2002 5:28:05 AM From: DaiTN Read Replies (1) | Respond to of 397 Utha, Sorry it took a little long to reply, got tons of things to do after a mini vacation last week. :)) Here is my take about the dividend and the shares conversion: Company announced dividend last year with recorded date of July 16th 2001. You got 1 preferred share with face value of $500.00 for every 500 shares of common stock you own. Company has 99M shares authorized on the book, and approximately 27M shares outstanding (float) at the time. Managements were not participated in the dividend; but for simplicity, let's assume that managements hold no shares. Here is my calculation: A) 27,000,000 os / 500 = 54,000 preferred shares issued as part of the dividend last year. B) Each preferred share has face value of $500.00, so the total value of the dividend has a potential of being $27,000,000 dollars (54,000 ps X $500 per share). C) Keep in mind that most people who get the preferred shares certificate, must own the same number of common shares or more by July 16th 2002 this year in order to participate in the conversion. Again, let's assume that 50% of shareholders hold shares since last year (or buying them back before July 16th), then the dividend total value will be: (54,000 ps X 50%) X $500 = $13,500,000 dollars D) Here come July 16th 2002, and you will excercise your preferred shares into common shares. Shareholders can begin to covert starting July 16th until August 16th, 2002. The conversion price is the 20 trading days average closing price of the bid and ask immediately preceding the specific date the preferred shareholder gives notice to convert.(this is an accounting nightmare, it means the stock transfer agent has to do a calculation for each shareholder to determine the conversion price). Another catch is the shareholders will get a 10% discount; the real price for conversion is only 90% of the calculated 20 days average closing bid and ask. Since we don't know the 20 trading days average bid and ask, let's assume that the average range will be 10 cents to 30 cents; and for simplicity, 20 cents is the average price we use. Now let's do some more calculation. 20 cents X 90% = 18 cents $13,500,000 / 18 cents = 75,000,000 new common shares issue from the dividend. (something is seriously wrong here if the float right now is only 35M shares. This is acting like a 3 for 1 split without calling it as such. But I am not sure why management would do this while they do not participate in the action. this is a major dilution to their holdings. Anyone with opinion, feel free to jump in). Pay special attention here if you are a trader; because the date that they use to calculate the conversion will begin starting on June 19th (20 trading days preceeding July 16th), and will continue until August 16th, 2002. The managements want the PPS to be as high as possible so they can issue less shares, and there will be buying pressure from shareholders who received preferred shares but no longer own the common shares (they need to own the common shares to qualify for the conversion). One major draw back is, the insiders may use this period to unload their holdings. For sure there will be wild trading range for this stock during this 50 days period as the MMs will take full advantage to line up their pockets. And you don't want to hold any of this stock by the end of July, because of the dilution factor I outline from the calculation above. Got to get some ZZZZZZ! To be continue..........!