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To: Lane3 who wrote (9297)4/17/2002 11:10:09 AM
From: J. C. Dithers  Read Replies (1) | Respond to of 21057
 
The statement of mine that is "just too much for you" was:

The ultimate proof of gay male promiscuity is the fact that AIDS is overwhelmingly a male homosexual disease primarily spread by sexual contact ... something that is NOT occurring in the male heterosexual population.

I am sure you took note of this statement in the site you referenced:

North America: Male-male sex remains the biggest single cause of new HIV infections in the US and for 46% of all AIDS cases in the US.

(You may have noticed a post of mine citing 2002 statistics from Los Angeles County, where male-male sex accounts for more like 70 percent of all AIDS cases).

As you did post from your site, the corresponding statistic for heterosexuals in N/A is 11%.

Perhaps it is my characterization of "overwhelmingly a male homosexual disease" that you find too much. We could always negotiate as to a word that would be more acceptable to you.

To redirect the issue into a discussion of what is happening in the underdeveloped world, Africa in particular, involves us in areas where there are literally 1000's of subcultures with customs, traditions, gender roles, etc., vastly different different from the developed nations, and which affect the spread of an epidemic.

In North America, gay men who confine their sexual activity to a non-infected partner are at no greater risk of contracting AIDS than a monogamous heterosexual couple. I submit that, using your cited figures, the 46% versus 11% discrepancy, especially when viewed in the light of population ratios of gays to heterosexuals, is convincing evidence of the greater sexual promiscuity of gay men.