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To: Neocon who wrote (9615)4/18/2002 9:35:51 AM
From: thames_sider  Read Replies (2) | Respond to of 21057
 
I thought 'Palestine' was separate from 'Jordan' (status of West Bank obviously excepted) - hence the post-WW1 British mandate territory of the Trans-Jordan, distinct from Palestine?

Yes, of course, it would have been very thinly settled compared with today, by any races. It might also have been hard to assess Arab population if it was partly or mostly nomadic rather than settled.



To: Neocon who wrote (9615)4/18/2002 10:23:43 AM
From: Dayuhan  Read Replies (1) | Respond to of 21057
 
the territory partitioned as Israel had a Jewish majority, formed under accepted rules of emigration, that had not illegally expropriated anyone, and had, in fact, developed much of the land

"Accepted rules of emigration" meaning rules accepted by whom? Certainly not the resident population of Palestine.

The expropriations may not have been illegal, but they were no less shattering for that, and it didn't help that they were conducted under the aegis of a foreign occupying power. It is very important to remember, when looking at land purchases, that the overwhelming majority of the land sold was not sold by the tillers of the land. These were tenanted estates, and traditionally the tenants changed hands with the land, simply paying their rents (a percentage of the crop) to the new owners. When the estates were bought by Jewish settlers, the tenant farmers were simply, brutally, and legally evicted. They ended up in urban shanty towns, and became the first generation of Palestinian refugees. They were, of course, easy pickings for anyone who wanted to incite violence against the settlers.