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To: Wyätt Gwyön who wrote (118992)5/19/2002 11:20:15 PM
From: rkral  Respond to of 152472
 
FWIW, personally i think options should be expensed up front based on Black-Scholes, and subsequently their effects should show up in share dilution (just as it happens in the real world).

That is my viewpoint right now too .. assuming that by "their effects" you mean "their exercise".

I would like to be able to place a one-time cost on the exercise .. e.g., by using John Shannon's approach .. or by comparing to an open market (naked or covered) call write. But I'm not there yet .. and maybe no one is, except John.

Thanks for the informative reply.

Ron



To: Wyätt Gwyön who wrote (118992)5/20/2002 1:32:43 AM
From: Elroy  Respond to of 152472
 
If I get issued the right to buy 100 shares at $20 on March 1st and the stock is $20, and then when the quarter ends on March 31st the shares are $30, doesn't the diluted share count rise by 100 shares since my call options are in the money?

If the company had to count my 100 share option as an expense, what would be the cost? The cost when issued and the shares were at the money, or the amount the options were in the money ($10 per share) when they report the March quarter results?

And if the company has to report the diluted share count 100 higher (even though I have not yet exercised, so there aren't actually 100 more shares outstanding) and also report the option expense (whatever that amount is), isn't that double counting?

Elroy