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Politics : Foreign Affairs Discussion Group -- Ignore unavailable to you. Want to Upgrade?


To: JohnM who wrote (30478)5/23/2002 11:11:22 AM
From: Ilaine  Read Replies (2) | Respond to of 281500
 
I don't think Weber's thesis was about religion, per se, but about the cultural differences between the Protestants and the Catholics which were artifacts of their religion.

Perhaps it's not possible to separate the two.

For example, Protestants were more literate because they believed everyone should be able to read the Bible. Catholics did not have that belief.

At any rate, it's an historical fact that countries inhabited primarily by Protestants tend to be more prosperous that countries inhabited primarily by Catholics.

Zeev's argument, which is new to me, is that Jews boycotted Spain after being expelled during the Reconquista. However, the flowering of Spain occurred after 1492, the year the Jews were expelled. So I don't buy it.

And it doesn't explain the relative poverty of Latin America versus North America, nor the relative poverty of Portugal and Italy compared with Northern Europe.

(Disclosure, I am Catholic.)



To: JohnM who wrote (30478)5/23/2002 12:43:15 PM
From: LindyBill  Read Replies (4) | Respond to of 281500
 
Does religion, any religion, have any strong, first order, causative effect on economics? Not settled; probably never will be settled.

Show me a rich Catholic Country! I got in a real bind with a former Daughter-in-law, a Puerto Rican who considered herself totally Spanish, by pointing out that Spain, (and because of that, all Spanish Speaking countries) missed the "Enlightment" completely. They are still all tied up with the remnents of the Feudal system.