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Pastimes : Ask God -- Ignore unavailable to you. Want to Upgrade?


To: alan w who wrote (33621)10/18/2002 8:42:57 PM
From: Berry Picker  Respond to of 39621
 
Dear Allan

What "version" of scripture is that supposed to be Alan.

It seems to be written to specifically prove futurism rather than faithfulness to the Greek Text.

Thanks for pointing it out to me however it is always interesting to see what lengths some will go in order to maintain their positions. I printed it out and also saved it to my hard drive.



To: alan w who wrote (33621)10/19/2002 6:13:27 AM
From: Berry Picker  Respond to of 39621
 
Dear Allan

I read that article and I would have to say that it was the worst explanation I have ever witnessed. I am not just saying that because he disagrees with my position. I think you would have a hard time finding historicists or futurists who would be comfortable with his theory. The complete article is here.

concordant.org

This man's theory is that Jesus did in fact predict that his second coming would be in that generation - but - that was only according to His revealed will and because his hidden will was the complete opposite it did not come to pass and Jesus did not lie according to God's revealed will

My question becomes - did not Jesus then lie according to God's hidden will? I will give this guy credit for one thing. He realizes that the words of Christ did in fact predict His second coming within a generation of time (40 years) but where he goes from there is scary.

I quote some of it back to you and ask if you can buy this stuff yourself Allan?

This guy starts with this ‘version’ of these scriptures:

“UNDER no circumstances should you be finishing the cities of Israel till the Son of Mankind may be coming” (Matt.10:23b). “Verily I am saying to you that there are some of those standing here who under no circumstances should be tasting death till they should be perceiving the Son of Mankind coming in His kingdom” (Matt.16:28; cp Luke 9:27). “Verily I am saying to you that by no means may this generation be passing by till all these things should be occurring”

What he goes on to teach is that Jesus only said these things “should or may” occur. That the predictions of Christ were “dependant” upon Israel repenting which in the “hidden will” of God was never intended. He teaches that Christ’s prediction would have been true IF Israel would have repented and are therefore not wrong even though there was no chance of them being fulfilled according to God’s hidden will to blind Israel and harden their hearts. He does this and says this:

It must ever be kept in mind that Matthew 24:34 and other similar “imminency”(sic) passages concerning the Messianic kingdom, are made in relation to the will of God, then revealed. That other considerations and further revelation have made evident that Christ’s words, then spoken, were not a declaration of God’s actual intention concerning that very generation, is no dishonor upon Christ, nor does it follow that He was a false prophet.
If God’s revealed will is not also His hidden intention, and if Christ’s testimony here is only in relation to the former and not the latter, we should rather say that Christ’s testimony as to “this generation” was altogether true and correct within the province with which it was concerned.


Also he said this:

How unreasonable it would be to require, in order to meet our approval, even as to gain our appraisal as a “true statement,” that a statement must be true and correct not only concerning its own subject but concerning a different and incompatible subject as well. Similarly, it is absurd to ridicule or doubt the integrity of the words of Christ concerning “this generation” for only being correct in relation to that with which they are concerned. It is not Christ, or His words, that are mistaken, but we ourselves if we would expect His words within a certain sphere also to be true within a different and incompatible sphere, one which does not come under the purview of His words.

I’m sorry Alan – but I can not imagine ever getting to the point where I could think that somehow Jesus could predict something that he knew would never happen as being anything other than a lie and a false prophecy. I also can never buy the idea that God has a Revealed will and intent concerning prophesied events that are in fact completely contradictory to His hidden will. Where does the bible ever teach that? My understanding is that God’s revealed will is that which he has made know through His word and His hidden will is that which He has not revealed – not 2 completely different wills one revealed and likely false the other hidden and always true. The this guy says this as well:

GOD'S ACTUAL INTENTION
It is mistaken to take Christ’s words as somehow transcending the implicit proviso, “God willing,” or to assume that God’s revealed will concerning that generation, was also necessarily His actual intention concerning that generation.

How can anyone ever be sure what God is saying is true if God’s hidden will is different and God is speaks according to His revealed will always. Revealed will means that which is reveal in His word.
Deuteronomy 29:29 The secret things belong unto the LORD our God: but those things which are revealed belong unto us and to our children for ever, that we may do all the words of this law.
He also says this:
This is especially true when it is noted that these texts are expressed in the subjunctive mood, which calls attention to their dependent nature. Their ultimate dependency is upon the actual intention of the Father, Who has placed the decisive times and eras for restoring the kingdom to Israel in His own jurisdiction (Acts 1:7).
Very simply, until the word of God was completed (Col.1:25), one could not say to a certainty that a particular declaration of God’s revealed will concerning things to come was also a declaration of His actual intention concerning things to come.

Here he just taught that until a prophecy was actually fulfilled “one could not say to a certainly…” that it actually would. Yet the biblical test of a true prophet was that EVERTHING prophecied came true. Can Jesus play by completely different rules than any other prophet? Can I prophecy things and then say it was only according to God’s reveal will therefore it did not happen? Here’s more Allan:

THE QUESTION ARISES: “If our Lord’s words concerning His return and the conclusion of the eon, were not fulfilled to the generation living during His ministry, is there to be a future enactment of these same prophecies?”
Of course there will be no explicit, future enactment of these texts in which the twelve, and those evangelized by them, will see these various prophesied signs and events come to pass, those which precede Christ’s appearing


Here this guy teaches that some of what Christ predicted would never have an “explicit, future enactment” I take it he means some of it would never be fulfilled.

The fact that God’s revealed will–that these events should be arriving on “that generation”–did not come to pass, does not make the yet-future fulfillment of those same events in God’s own time any less certain.

Here he admits that it was God’s REVEALED WILL that Christ return within a generation but the fact that Jesus spoke of the persecutions and betrayal from an impenitent Israel does not bother this guy at all – he just presses on with his theory. What about this part of what Christ had predicted:

Matthew 24: 15 When ye therefore shall see the abomination of desolation, spoken of by Daniel the prophet, stand in the holy place, (whoso readeth, let him understand:)

How can this poor soul be teaching that what Christ was predicting was “contingent” and “dependant” upon Israel repenting when Christ predict the “abomination of desolation” arriving. If Israel had repented this would never have occurred. It make no sense to say this either:

Matthew 24: 9 Then shall they deliver you up to be afflicted, and shall kill you: and ye shall be hated of all nations for my name’s sake.
10 And then shall many be offended, and shall betray one another, and shall hate one another.
11 And many false prophets shall rise, and shall deceive many.
12 And because iniquity shall abound, the love of many shall wax cold.

Does that sound like an Israel that has repented and received their king? Jesus was not predicting what MIGHT happen if Israel had repented. It is obvious from the scriptures that the setting is not within a Godly Nation of Israel at all but a nation deserving of the wrath of the lamb. That was the nation Israel in 70 AD. Allan, I think you would have a hard time selling this guy to the futurist to be honest – most of them are not ready to say that Jesus lied according to God’s hidden will – but this guy is.

It is not Christ, or His words, that are mistaken, but we ourselves if we would expect His words within a certain sphere also to be true within a different and incompatible sphere, one which does not come under the purview of His words.

God hidden will to this guy is an “incompatible sphere” – to be honest I think this fellow James Coran – is in an “incompatible sphere” in that what he teaches is utterly incompatible to Jesus actually said.

Jesus said :

Matthew 16:28 Verily I say unto you, There be some standing here, which shall not taste of death, till they see the Son of man coming in his kingdom.

Now when Jesus says “Verily” I believe I can take that to the bank
but what James Coran says Jesus REALLY said was more like…

Verily, Verily, I swear unto you (the apostles) I MIGHT come back soon MAYBE if Israel repents.

Alan – can you HONESTLY buy that?