To: carranza2 who wrote (125874 ) 12/5/2002 7:23:17 PM From: hueyone Read Replies (2) | Respond to of 152472 As I appreciate it (I'm no options expert, by the way), there is no cost per se to the company when it issues options. The cost to it takes place when they are exercised and the company has to sell the employee a share of stock worth, say, $50, in the open market for the theoretical option price of $10. You are siding with the article I posted by Rueven Brenner and Donald Luskin. Their position is that there is no cost at issue and only a cost at exercise. While some scholars argue over where and when the best place to expense options is, I have never seen someone make the argument before, who accepts that notion that options are a legitimate cost, that options can only be a legitimate cost at exercise. I have seen others argue that it may be better to value the option cost at date of exercise instead of date of grant, but never that expensing at date of grant is completely illegitimate while expensing at date of exercise is legitimate. The majority of scholars, imo, appear to not only feel there is a cost at issue, but are agreeable to proposals by FASB and IASB to expense stock options at date of grant using Black Scholes. While I did say that I could live with these authors' proposed solution----that is expensing stock options at exercise and also tracking expected stock option expense in the liability section of the balance sheet---marked to market quarterly, I did find a peculiar flaw in the logic the authors used to refute expensing at time of grant: The author's write: Yes, the company has conveyed something of real value to the executive -- an option contract that the executive would have had to pay money for if he'd bought the same thing from a third party. But the company received something of value, too: the executive's commitment to work for the company, and probably at lower up-front wages than would otherwise be the case. It's an even trade -- so when the option is first issued there is no net cost, not even an intangible one. Peculiar logic indeed. By that logic wages should not be an expense either. After all, the company is engaged in an even trade when they proffer wages for services rendered. Best, Huey