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To: The Philosopher who wrote (3635)1/10/2003 11:28:26 AM
From: Neocon  Read Replies (1) | Respond to of 7720
 
Different city- states had different sorts of arrangements, but it does not much concern me, since I made specific historical reference to European aristocracy having a purpose in the Middle Ages, and being reduced to a more or less parasitic role as courtiers thereafter.

For an aristocracy to function as a social class, it must be based on birth, not achievement. In any event, the aristocrats of Europe were not bred for brains, primarily, but for brawn, for martial prowess. That is one of the reasons why, as the modern age developed, so many continued to be sportsmen, and to devote themselves to hunting or yacht racing or skiing.



To: The Philosopher who wrote (3635)1/10/2003 9:48:11 PM
From: TimF  Respond to of 7720
 
As far as I know, the Greeks had no hereditary aristocracy in the sense that he European nobility did

In some places and at some times they had something like it. They did have kings at times and other privilged and powerful people, that sometimes got their privledge by heredity, but I don't think it was as extensive as it was in Europe. Different city states did different things and they also changed over time.

You could even call Athens under its democratic phase an aristocracy. Most of the people in Athens where not citizens and the citizens where a privledged class who had the power, but I can see why you might think this a bit much.

Tim