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Politics : Foreign Policy Discussion Thread -- Ignore unavailable to you. Want to Upgrade?


To: Neocon who wrote (2498)1/24/2003 7:26:27 PM
From: Elmer Flugum  Read Replies (4) | Respond to of 15987
 
1. The "Palestinians" were never a people. They were Arabs living within the Ottoman Empire, and, later, the British Mandate, many of whom emigrated to Palestine after the Jews had made substantial investments and stimulated the local economy.

They did not exist then? In 1948, there was no Isra'El either. The Arabs were not living on that land when the Zionists made their move to create a "Jewish" state? What were the population figures in 1948 in the Palestinian Mandate for Arabs and Jews?

2. "Palestinian" land was not expropriated, but was bought by the Zionists. Only later, as a result of war, was there substantial flight that left land in Israeli hands.

What percentage of the land was purchased?

By whom, from whom, for whom?


3. During the '30s and '40s, despite substantial persecution in Europe, the British Mandatory authority severely limited the immigration of Jews into Palestine, while turning a blind eye to illegal Arab immigration.

Do you suppose that the British sided with the Arabs because they were the majority culture on that land and that those who wanted to come to Palestine were Europeans?

4. The establishment of Jordan took 80% of the original Palestinian territory out of play for Jewish use. Of the remaining 20%, the proposed UN partition would have gerrymandered Israel so that most Arabs would have lived outside of Israel, presumably to be annexed by Jordan, leaving the Zionists less than 10% of the original territory in dispute. And yet the Arab powers were firmly rejectionist, and vowed to drive the Jews into the sea by force of arms, despite the fact that they had all of the advantage in the region.

Did any Arab country sign a document agreeing to the partition? Did they have to accept the partition even if it was 3% of the Mandate, to foreigners of another continent? Would you? What do you suppose the Texans, New Mexicans, Arizonans and folks from southern Utah would do if the Mexicans partitioned their land? They have a historical presence there also.

5. It has been well- established that the main reason for "Palestinian" flight was the advise of Arab radio to get out of the way of the massacre that was anticipated. Incidentally, it may be that some Jews used the situation as a pretext for clearing out some villages, but, considering the extreme peril they were under, that is hardly worth contemplating.

International Law states that occupied lands and its people must be returned. US military there at the time of the radio transmissions say it never happened.

6. Despite the success of the Israeli army in repulsing the Arab attacks, the Arabs had many more troops and much more equipment. Their training was poor, and they did not have an effective strategy, but they still held the balance of power in the region. Thus, it seems to me understandable that those Arabs who had fled were considered dangerous to readmit, and that Israel used its victory as a way of establishing more defensible borders.

That would be justification for holding the land from the Sea to River as signified by the two blue stripes on the Isra'Eli flag?

Who started the hostilities? Really?


7. Despite its security concerns, Israel has been the most democratic regime in the region. Considering the nature of most of the surrounding Arab regimes over the years, and the ardor with which the "Palestinians" embraced terrorism as a tactic, it seems strange to give Arab propaganda especial credit.

Isra'El is a democracy for Jews alone. The democratic power of the Arab population by the Jewish Isra'Elis portray is window-dressing.

Isra'El is a European, American financed, colony founded in and maintained with terror.


len