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To: Stock Farmer who wrote (174595)5/15/2003 5:15:02 AM
From: Don Lloyd  Read Replies (1) | Respond to of 186894
 
John,

The way we calculate "fully diluted" is as if the option was exercised and the proceeds used to buy back a share. At the prices during the period!

Are you effectively saying here that a stock or option grant carries with it a future obligation for the company to buy back stock? I can't see that it does, but if it did, or if I thought that it did, a company expense would no longer be out of the question.

The classical definition of "profit" is a change in wealth of shareholders.

This seems highly unlikely. Profits, whether or not they were called such, almost certainly came along before stock companies. A sole owner of more than one business would need to know the profit of each business separately.

Regards, Don