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Politics : Sharks in the Septic Tank -- Ignore unavailable to you. Want to Upgrade?


To: Solon who wrote (70801)7/18/2003 2:01:52 PM
From: one_less  Read Replies (1) | Respond to of 82486
 
It appears now that I can completely agree with you now, except on whether or not we have a common understanding on the use of some of the terminology.

”It is agreed by all sensible people that these "principles" exist. The point is that different people and groups of people held (and hold) diametrically opposed moral principles which they claim to be Ultimate. In every case where two such claims conflict, at least one of them is NOT Absolute.”

I agree with both of these positions. That is: 1) principles exist 2) a moral principle cannot be absolute if it does not hold up universally. Opinions from all sensible people would find agreement. Not, whole cultures opining one way that is opposing another.

”Nobody is arguing whether principles exist, or whether societies have always enjoyed a variety of moral principles and laws to control and guide conduct between citizens. The question is only whether these opinions of right conduct were invented by humans in response to their personalized points of view, were invented by a supernatural being, or were opinions of the universe which somehow got enmeshed therein to be discovered by humans.”
Opinions about right and wrong conduct are definitely not expressions of an absolute morality. The fact that they might work for the vast majority of individuals does not make them a absolute. Even one exception nullifies them as absolute. I do not believe that there are absolute rules of right and wrong conduct that is specific to circumstance.
<<<<"Charity is good, justice is good, injustice is bad, etc. are absolutes">>>
”Now you are trifling, I fear. These definitional descriptors have nothing to do with the origin of moral opinions. They are simple definitional tautologies. Saying that cauliflower is a vegetable does not prove that such an opinion is not a human invention and definition.”
What you are calling definitional tautologies is what I have been calling moral absolutes all along. It appears we have no argument except in how I have labeled them.
<<<"This sentence represents an absolute moral statement: “Be just in your dealings with human beings.” >>>
”Again, you are simply giving a definitional tautology. A moral principle needs to reflect a moral truism. It must express the rightness or wrongness of some behaviour or conduct. In this case the "principle" would be: it is "right" or "good" to be just in your dealings with others. Or in other words it is just to be just. Defining a concept or inventing the meaning of a word does not equate with a principle. We accept in the definition of just that justice is just. Defining a word does not qualify as a moral imperative.”
“Moral Truism”? Is that the same as saying it exists in the realm of absolute ideals? If so, why quibble. We are done.
I could restate the sentence to be, “It is good to be just in your dealings with other human beings.” I don’t see a change in essential meaning but if it clarifies the moral truism of the statement then I am happy to include it. If you argue that good is a synonym for just and we could just as well say it is just to be just then we have absolute clarity on this issue. I agree.
So we agree that there are ideals existing as truisms that are not subject to opinion by sensible people, they exist in the ether. And any individual from any culture at any time in human history has access to this truth. This is what I was calling an absolute moral principle. I would argue for no other kind. Like the kind that prescribes particular conduct. I am not against rules of conduct that are referenced to a moral absolute but, like you, I believe individual circumstance should always be considered (specially mine).
”The commandment to "be just" could be considered a moral principle if there are premises such as, God exists, What God commands is good, God commanded in ABC chronicles to "be just"...therefore it is good to be just. But I am afraid that simply defining malfeasance as bad, charity as good, and fish as slippery does not constitute a principle.”
It is still my opinion that this is an unnecessary complication (Occam’s Razor) to the premise that “be just” is a “moral principle,” “moral truism,” “moral absolute,” all by itself.

Lets examine: “be just” is a moral absolute. “charity is good” is a moral absolute. “Fish is slippery” has nothing to do with good or bad, so does not qualify as a moral statement at all. Even if you said “fish is good” (a moral sounding statement), it does not qualify. Some people are allergic to fish and there is no absolute implied truism that can be understood by the statement.

Now you and I could sit down for an hour and come up with several hundred examples of moral principles that ARE more than definitional tautologies. Furthermore, it is likely that we could come up with principles that were highly sensible, reasonable, practical, and logical. They might even represent our own personalized moral ideals. I dare say they would. But this is the point, Jewels: No matter how sensible or idealistic the principles we came up with by brainstorming...they would be subjective and relative principles from fallible and limited creatures.
So, I would label the first phase of our exercise: Listing moral absolutes. I would label the second phase defining principles to live by that are excellent in our opinion but probably not absolute.

”We may not diasagree that much on the DEFINITION of moral terms such as justice, charity, respect, duty, etc., but we certainly disagree all over the world as to what conduct ought to correspond to such terms.”

Yes we do.

”There is one popular moral principle believed in by many as Absolute which is something like this: Do good to those that hate you. Not only is this not universally nor generally accepted, but it has no internal consistency as understood by subjective practitioners.”

I think the biggest problem with something like this is that the practitioners who can understand it as it was intended must be very wise in the first place. So the idea that it could be universally understood is not likely. The statement is provocative and on the surface contradictory regarding self interests. So, within a culture where this type of moral statement is part of the heritage there is a high likelihood that it will be examined in light of experience and under a positive connotation. There may be a higher level of understanding and acceptance in such a culture vs a culture that gives it no examination beyond the surface. Far from absolute understanding or acceptance in either event.

The idea of an Absolute Morality is best argued from a perspective of blind faith; because as C.H. tried to tell you: Baby...you can't get there from here...--<gg>

If you are referring to a body of doctrine that prescribes a moral way of living that absolutely accounts for all circumstances…I agree. That is not what I was arguing. I do not believe in blind faith. I believe that I have the ability to determine morality by using self evident confirmation of truisms. I have the ability to learn from my experience and from wise teachings. There is a bridge from the world of experience and teaching to the inner space of my being that confirms my faith. But then that’s just me.