To: Lane3 who wrote (71283 ) 8/1/2003 8:35:14 PM From: The Philosopher Read Replies (1) | Respond to of 82486 Time will tell, perhaps. Of course, one must also accept that even if there is some genetic predisposition toward homosexuality, that doesn't end the discussion of whether society's approach toward homosexuality should be approval, acceptance without approval, accceptance but with disapproval, or rejection. After all, research is suggeting that many behaviors have a genetic component. Violence, for one. Are we going to say that violence is okay if people have that genetic predisposition? Or are we going to say that we understand the existence of a genetic predisposition, but we expect members of society to overcome that predisposition and not engage in the behavior? There are, after all, at least two components to homosexuality. There is innate predisposition, and then there is overt behiavior. A person may have the self-perception, whether from nurture or nature or a combination of the two, that one prefers sexual relations with persons of their own gender instead of or in addition to pesons of the opposite gender. But that in and of itself is simply thought or desire. Acting on that thought or desire is a second, entirely distinct, step. Pedophilia may, indeed, have certain genetic roots. But we do not tolerate people carrying those desires out in their behavior. Society is entitled to say to people "yes, you may have a genetic disposition toward certain behaviors, but we expect you not to engage in them anyhow." Whether a person or society puts homosexuality in this class, or whether it puts it in the class of predispositions which it is acceptable to put into behavior, is a choice for each society to make. But it is wrong to lump the two together and say that simply because a person has a certain predisposition therefore society has an obligation to tolerate that behavior.