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To: rkral who wrote (64380)8/8/2003 8:19:57 AM
From: rkral  Respond to of 77399
 
OT Correction ... Frank and Greg, re "the option writer *ends up ahead* .. with the time-value portion of the premium, and the option buyer will lose the time-value."

Incorrect statement, for sure. Consider an option writer who only writes ATM options. The option premium is 100% time-value, and the option premium is the maximum the writer can pocket.

No way the writer pockets the maximum on *all* trades .. so doing so on any single trade can't be the expectation .. for an ATM write, at least.

So the expectation of an ATM call option write must be somewhere north of the time-value of *money* required to hedge (cover) .. but south of the time-value of the option .. before other costs.

Ron