SI
SI
discoversearch

We've detected that you're using an ad content blocking browser plug-in or feature. Ads provide a critical source of revenue to the continued operation of Silicon Investor.  We ask that you disable ad blocking while on Silicon Investor in the best interests of our community.  If you are not using an ad blocker but are still receiving this message, make sure your browser's tracking protection is set to the 'standard' level.
Politics : Sharks in the Septic Tank -- Ignore unavailable to you. Want to Upgrade?


To: Ilaine who wrote (73955)9/5/2003 11:19:12 AM
From: The Philosopher  Read Replies (1) | Respond to of 82486
 
I'm not sure we were talking about any specific individual. Certainly not Moussaoui, since he hasn't been tried yet. As I recall, it was a general discussion about people who had been acquitted who many people thought was actually guilty. If you want an example, try William Smith or OJ.

In either one of those cases, is it legally accurate to say taht a guilty person was acquitted?

My argument was no because they were found not guilty and therefore aren't guilty by law, and therefore a guilty person wasn't acquitted.

It spread from there into the issue of innocence vs. guilt, but that was the initial issue, as best I recall it.

Anyhow, if you want to get specific, if one truly believes that OJ did kill his wife and that it had all the elements which constitute the crime of murder, is it legally accurate to say that a guilty person got acquitted?



To: Ilaine who wrote (73955)9/5/2003 1:40:43 PM
From: Lazarus_Long  Respond to of 82486
 
THe indictment against Moussaoui:
fas.org

Chronology:
crime.about.com
You lawyers should love that; it's endless.

He has been indicted; that would appear to satisfy habeas corpus.
wikipedia.org

Also, it appears he will be tried in civil courts, so the "military tribunal" argument goes away.

Both would seemingly still be alive for the Guantanamo prisoners.