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Politics : Foreign Affairs Discussion Group -- Ignore unavailable to you. Want to Upgrade?


To: Jacob Snyder who wrote (114295)9/9/2003 8:58:33 PM
From: Nadine Carroll  Respond to of 281500
 
If Pakistan had claimed the entire subcontinent for themselves (perhaps allowing the Hindus a tiny Bantustan in Southern India), and, over the course of the last 50 years, fought repeated wars to conquer all of it, and dispossessed the Hindus of vast amounts of territory where they used to be the majority, then the analogy would be accurate

You must have a very peculiar geography in your head, to think that Israel is in any conceivable way analogous to an entire subcontinent. Israel - the whole 1947 Mandate of Palestine - is a tiny sliver of land that comprises about half of 1% of the Arab lands. The Arabs never regarded this small stretch of coastline as anything but a piece of Southern Syria - only Christians and Jews considered it a separate land.

Pakistan was formed of territory where Muslims had been the majority population for centuries, so the analogy is false

Pakistan used to have a very large population of Hindus too, millions of whom became refugees at partition. What, no "right of return" here?