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Politics : Politics for Pros- moderated -- Ignore unavailable to you. Want to Upgrade?

To: LindyBill who wrote (10599)	10/3/2003 5:20:26 PM
From: carranza2	Read Replies (3) \| Respond to of 793725

No, I'm talking about the call by the CIA for an investigation, which took place shortly after Novak published his article and well after the Washington Post article. That story is not being proved but it is irrelevant to the point I'm trying to make. Why didn't the CIA ignore the alleged disclosure? If there's no crime to be proven, why did it report the episode to the Justice Department in the first place? A political firestorm that would embarrass the WH was perfectly predictable. I suppose there are two possibilities, one sinister, the other more or less routine. The sinister one is that the CIA is deliberately trying to embarrass the Administration. This seems so nutty that I'm beginning to think the innocent explanation is the more likely explanation. It assumes a routine report to the DOJ about the disclosure of potentially classified info, with no before-the-fact assessment by Agency lawyers to determine if a crime has been committed. In effect, the CIA says "Let the DOJ figure out if there's a crime." No political calculus whatsoever. But even the innocent explanation does not totally convince me since any WH involvement is per se highly political. There had to be a political angle recognized by someone at the CIA unless, of course, the CIA is politically naive, which I don't believe is the case. Wheels within wheels within hidden wheels. I suppose the only thing we know is that the public is clueless about where the truth lies. And that includes me.