To: Solon who wrote (77459 ) 10/13/2003 12:25:35 PM From: one_less Read Replies (1) | Respond to of 82486 As far as I know testosterone alone does not account for sexual arousal. There is always some object, even if it is a mental image that is involved. If, as you say, mojo was not the object of interest, then his ethic has not been violated, and no harm done. I covered this previously and termed it an "awkward moment" that connotes no violation of ethics for either party. Regarding the referal that a specialist has made. I find it pretty far fetched that a specialist would make such a referal. If the specialist were that knowledgeable about mojo's operation then he would she would surely know of several qualified service providers. You have been very careful to discribe the client as someone who is incapable of being sexualized at all, let alone innappropriately. Since, mojo's belief statement is in regards to putting people into situations where there is a high probability of them becoming innappropriately sexualized then it appears this would not be a risk situation for this client. I can't imagine why mojo would have any problem providing services to this client but I also find it hard to believe, or at least far fetched that the specialist would make this much of an effort to refer him to mojo. Your senario of Mojo asking about your sexuality is an extrapolotion and based more on your fears than on the personality of Mojo. Mojo presents his service as a service in which risks are reduced that is offered to heterosexual men and qualifies that via his belief statement. Any confrontational issues would have to be brought to him, not the reverse. If a homosexual man wanted to conceil his sexual orientation, mojo would not ask about it.