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Politics : Sharks in the Septic Tank -- Ignore unavailable to you. Want to Upgrade?


To: Lane3 who wrote (78805)11/8/2003 10:58:54 AM
From: The Philosopher  Read Replies (1) | Respond to of 82486
 
I understand your distinction, but not your difference.

There is an absolutely guaranteed contraceptive procedure. That is called abstinence.

Anything less than that carries risks of pregnancy. What you seem to be saying is that if a couple uses no contraceptive devices and the woman gets pregnant she is not morally entitled to an abortion as a contraceptive alternative, but if they try some contraception procedure (maybe rhythm?) and she gets pregnant then they are morally entitled to use abortion as a back-up contraception procedure.

In either case, there is a possibility of pregnancy and a possibiliy of no pregnancy, and in either case the couple is relying on abortion for the sole purpose of contraceptive use. In my view, you're trying to split an unsplittable hair.



To: Lane3 who wrote (78805)11/8/2003 11:06:42 AM
From: The Philosopher  Respond to of 82486
 
Suppose a young couple read on some web site that if you have sex by the light of the full moon you won't get pregnant, and they try it, and she gets pregnant. Is she morally entitled to the abortion because they tried contraception?