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Politics : Foreign Affairs Discussion Group -- Ignore unavailable to you. Want to Upgrade?

To: GST who wrote (122492)	12/30/2003 12:11:50 AM
From: Hawkmoon	Read Replies (1) \| Respond to of 281500

France did not have a legitimate government under German occupation So does this mean you don't believe the Palestinian government is legitimate since it is under Israeli occupation? Any actions taken by Germany through a puppet government in the name of France under German occupation The bottom line is that Germany DID NOT OCCUPY Vichy France until November, 1942 (after the US invaded N. Africa). A "puppet" government is traditionally one that is defined like the puppet Norwegian government of Norway.. Quisling's government was a puppet regime, with no legitimacy, no armed forces, and no authority outside of that permitted by Berlin. But Vichy France was permitted to maintain a 100,000 man army (which coincidentally was the amount France permitted Germany to have after WWI), and maintain control over it's overseas colonies. It also was permitted to control it's Navy.. All Germany wanted was the Northern and Western part so they could prepare for their invasion of Britain, as well as build U-Boat pens.. They really had no need to occupy all of France since that would have required far more manpower than they were willing to commit. In fact, the majority of the Free French forces which later joined De Gaulle were members of this former Vichy army from N. Africa. Again, Germany only occupied 3/5ths of France, not the entire country.. They did not invade Vichy France until almost 1943, 2 1/2 years after the original invasion. just as Iraq does not now have a legitimate government under US occupation. Hmm.. I seem to recall the UN has recognized them as such... unwire.org That sounds like a legitimate government to me.. Certainly more legitimate that Saddam's regime ever was.. Hawk