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Pastimes : Ask God -- Ignore unavailable to you. Want to Upgrade?

To: alan w who wrote (36353)	1/12/2004 1:06:44 AM
From: Berry Picker	Read Replies (1) \| Respond to of 39621

I am using the same meaning of "all" in that verse. I may have already answered this before I read this. I believe I get my meaning of "all" from context Allan That Paul is teaching about Jews and Gentiles throughout those chapters and that He is saying that the curse did not just come upon gentiles in Adam but that all 'nations and races' both "Jews and Gentiles" fell in Adam. I know that "ABSOLUTELY ALL MEN FELL" in Adam but Paul is using that to prove both Jew and Gentile are BOTH under sin: Romans 3:9 What then? are we better than they? No, in no wise: for we have before proved both Jews and Gentiles, that they are all under sin; Alan - I can not "fess up" I am not using a different "all" I am using the same kind of "ALL" Paul the author himself is using. This is what I see Paul saying CONSISTENTLY throughout not just that verse but those chapters: Romans 5:18 Therefore as by the offence of one judgment came upon *both Jews and Gentiles* to condemnation; even so by the righteousness of one the free gift came upon *both Jews and Gentiles* unto justification of life. All men is as Paul stated in Romans 3:9 *ALL MEN* (in this case) =*both Jews and Gentiles* not every person as you believe. Paul was building argument with Jews who thought they alone could be saved - that is the context of the entire book up to there. Surely you have seen that Jews had a hard time believing this by other passages. Sorry Alan - I have been studying to show myself approved. Brian