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To: Logain Ablar who wrote (10720)3/30/2004 10:44:29 AM
From: CalculatedRiskRead Replies (1) | Respond to of 81568
 
Yes, the first example is representative of our system. But all 3 are exactly the same economically! That is why I listed all three; the equivalence is important to understand.

In all 3 cases, the cost of an hour of labor is the same to the employer. And, in all 3 cases, the employee receives the same income and future benefit. Once people get past the mechanics, they can understand the economics. All 3 examples are equivalent.

For the tax burden, the employee pays the entire FICA tax (even though the employers mechanically write the checks). I will try to think of a better way to explain this.