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Technology Stocks : Intel Corporation (INTC) -- Ignore unavailable to you. Want to Upgrade?


To: Elmer Phud who wrote (178421)6/27/2004 12:55:11 PM
From: TimF  Read Replies (1) | Respond to of 186894
 
The options are not the right to get free shares at no cost.

Agreed, at least for most options.

The options do not cause dilution because Intel is repurchasing more shares than exercised by grant holders

My main point was that there is a cost, and apparently one not counted as an expense by GAAP to buying them back in order to prevent the dilution.

I only wanted to dispel the notion that Intel's board of directors is no different from Enron's.

Just to make it clear I am not arguing that the actions of Intel's board or senior execs has been anything like that of Enron's board and corporate officers. Intel's behavior in dealing with and accounting for options is as far as I can tell a fairly normal, wide spread, and legal practice.

Tim



To: Elmer Phud who wrote (178421)6/27/2004 2:40:57 PM
From: Ali Chen  Read Replies (1) | Respond to of 186894
 
Ep, your addressing is all wrong:

"The options are not the right to get free shares at no cost."

At cost to who? For the company, there is clear no
immediate cost, the cost is just deferred.

"The options do not cause dilution because Intel is repurchasing more shares than exercised by grant holders."

Finally, my endless effort to convey the fact that Intel's
stock repurchase is exactly equal to stock dilution came
to fruition, thanks. However, besides
option grants, there are other sources of stock dilution
that have the same effect as labor expenses - ESPP, stock
conversions, I dont know what else.

"It is reasonable to consider the shares delivered upon options exercise to be the same shares that were repurchased at the time of the original grant, at or near the grant price."

No, it is not reasonable. Intel started the adequate
repurchasing program when, about 8 years ago, right?
At least if we consider the options exercised by employees
during first few years, they were granted well before,
when no repurchases were made. Therefore your theory is
wrong.

"It is reasonable to consider the shares repurchased today to be the shares that will eventually be delivered upon exercise of today's grants, at or near today's grant price."

Illogical again. As you said yourself, Intel was buying
more shares that were exercised, so there is no direct connection
with options grant process. More, as I tried to educate you in
my recent post, the options are virtually sold to a broker
at FMV and are recorded as such to IRS.

"The difference in value between the repurchase price and the share price on the day of exercise is "opportunity loss"."

Wrong again. There is no other "option" but "option grant",
thgere is no other opportunity for an employee to consider.
You either accept a potential compensation, or decline the
free option. If a company offers the stock option plan,
there is no other "opportunity" for them to miss.

"It is not necessary to consider the shares repurchased today to be the shares delivered today upon exercise of old grants."

It is not necessary, but from an external observer they are.
Not all repurchased shares are for delivery of exercised
option, true. Some fraction of the repurchased stock
must go to make up the difference in ESPP, as Lizzie
pointed out recently (effectively). There must be some
other payments made by shares, something like for conversion
of shares during continuous chain of acquisitions, just
my WAG. Employeer match to 401-k retirement plans are made
in stock as well.

"Intel's board of directors is no different from Enron's. That was a cheap shot by Carl and Ali"

I don't recall making such a straight connection.
I always endorsed Intels management as an example
of perfect "financial engineering" within given rules
(and subtle loopholes within thereof).

So, my dear educator, go educate yourself.

- Ali