To: sea_urchin who wrote (7991 ) 8/30/2004 9:00:16 AM From: LPS5 Respond to of 20039 Since about 1996, to my knowledge, there isn't any. I'd go a back a few years from that, but, I can accept that. When did the Soviets 'officially' withdraw from Afghanistan? Wasn't it 1989 or so? In fact, it would be preposterous to suggest it. But that does not mean that the possibility cannot be considered. I wouldn't call it preposterous, and may I note...with the widest of grins...that my occupation demands that I continually consider that unlikely possibilities are hard and fast possibilities all the same. :-)Prior to that it is well known that bin Laden and his organization was a CIA asset in Afghanistan. It's true that the U.S. and the mujahedin worked together, but I'd say it would be equally correct to call the CIA an asset of the greater jihad that was launched against the invading Soviet forces. Did we not have the same goal, albeit for completely different reasons?It is also known that he collaborated with the US and the KLA in Kosovo. That's not at all how I understand it. If you can show me a credible article pointing conclusively to this I'll be glad to accept it, but my understanding was that any dealings with Bin Laden or the network which came to be called al Qaeda were incidental given the numerous, overlapping and sketchy networks of support and financing therein involved. For me, a particular appeal of the notion that Al Qaeda could still be a CIA proxy is based on the qui bono hypothesis that its actions have not been of benefit to any Islamic country. So, by your method of reasoning: (a) everything happens for a reason; (b) there are no mistakes or erroneous assumptions; and, (c) any benefits must be tangible or readily apparent. Is that correct? I have seen absolutely nothing here (or elsewhere) implying, conclusively - other than with laughably liberal doses of conspiratorial invention - that "al Qaeda is a U.S. proxy." LPS5