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Politics : Politics for Pros- moderated -- Ignore unavailable to you. Want to Upgrade?


To: Lane3 who wrote (93902)1/5/2005 6:12:02 PM
From: Ilaine  Read Replies (1) | Respond to of 793725
 
I do understand the difference between correlation and causation.

I just don't see how one can prove that getting married makes it less likely that a child will experience poverty during its lifetime other than statistical correlation.

Nevertheless, children whose parents never marry have an 81% chance of living in poverty during the 17 years of childhood.

By age 6, 68% of children in never married households experience at least one year of poverty, versus 12% in married households; by age 12, 78% versus 18%, by age 18, 81% versus 22%. (Source: The Economic Risk of Childhood in America: Estimating the Probability of Poverty across the Formative Years, Mark R. Rank; Thomas A. Hirschl, Journal of Marriage and the Family, Vol. 61, No. 4. (Nov., 1999), pp. 1058-1067).

There are exceptions. There are always exceptions.

Still, my experience in representing people in divorce suggests to me that the reason isn't hard to see -- two earner families are financially better off than one earner families. Both parents contribute, not only to the economic well-being of their children, but many other ways. Not just parenting the children, but contributing to the family unit.

It's a very rare man or woman who contributes nothing of value to the family.



To: Lane3 who wrote (93902)1/5/2005 6:49:04 PM
From: TimF  Respond to of 793725
 
I agree with you that the distinction between correlation and causation is important, but there is a correlation between correlation and causation.

(Even if there is not a causal relationship. :)