Silicon Investor (SI) -- The First Internet Community

STOCKTALK

We've detected that you're using an ad content blocking browser plug-in or feature. Ads provide a critical source of revenue to the continued operation of Silicon Investor. We ask that you disable ad blocking while on Silicon Investor in the best interests of our community. If you are not using an ad blocker but are still receiving this message, make sure your browser's tracking protection is set to the 'standard' level.

Politics : Formerly About Advanced Micro Devices -- Ignore unavailable to you. Want to Upgrade?

To: combjelly who wrote (220909)	2/25/2005 5:48:45 PM
From: tejek	Read Replies (2) \| Respond to of 1577593

"Whose laws allowed for slaves? " Well, slavery was legalized in Mass. in 1641. It wasn't until 1783 that a court case was used to overturn slavery in Mass. The slave trade in the US was abolished in 1808. So, except for that final 25 year period of the slave trade, slavery was legal in Mass. I don't remember asking for clarification on the issue. I am perfectly content thinking that slavery never existed in the north. I could let your insights on the issue ruin my day but I won't. And I am sure if there were slaves in the North they must have been more equal than the slaves in the South and better treated. I just did a google and it turns out the slaves were treated better in the South than in the North. Another urban myth bites the dust! Oh well.........<g> ted