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To: Shack who wrote (117788)4/27/2005 11:39:21 PM
From: The Freep  Read Replies (2) | Respond to of 209892
 
I think what MC is saying is that within the 3 down, which he doesn't have as done, there can be overlap of the 1 down. If this is the iv of 3 it's okay. if this is the 4, it's not okay. It is certainly possible to count the SPX as having done 5 waves down into last week's low, even though the 2 and look a lot alike. However, since you mention the OEX... did it make a oh-so-slighter high on April 12th? What if that is actually where we need to start counting from? Yikes. As if I wasn't confused enough....

It's all degreeeeees, man.

the freep



To: Shack who wrote (117788)4/27/2005 11:44:43 PM
From: Henry J Costanzo  Read Replies (1) | Respond to of 209892
 
IMHO that 1164 was part of a subdivision of 3 down....It wasn't marginal; it was irrelevant..

I might have a problem if we overlap 1171.12.....that would be (iv) of 3 overlapping (i) of 3....



To: Shack who wrote (117788)4/28/2005 7:28:23 AM
From: skinowski  Respond to of 209892
 
Rightly or wrongly, I thought all along that the orthodox low for the first leg down - most likely - was on March 23. If that's the case, there were no overlaps so far, and the "W4" theory is still active.

If everything would look like in the textbook, then everyone would be an Elliottician.... -g.