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To: RMF who wrote (39252)5/5/2006 10:41:04 AM
From: Sidney Reilly  Respond to of 39621
 
RMF. There was always the written Torah and then the unwritten oral traditions. The Torah is the Old Testament. After the Babylonian captivity of the Jews many Jews stayed in Babylon. Eventually around 500+ AD the oral traditions were written down by the Babylonian Jews because they feared they would be lost due to too few Jews willing to learn them. The "Babylonian Talmud" became a new Jewish writing 5 centuries after Jesus had already changed Judaism forever. These Jews were still clinging to the old ways.



To: RMF who wrote (39252)5/5/2006 7:29:56 PM
From: tlaG nhoJ  Read Replies (3) | Respond to of 39621
 
RMF, what we know as the 'old testament' cannot exist without the 'new testament'. Didn't know it was 'old' before something 'new' appeared. :-)

So the 'old testament' is not a book but, rather, represents an epoch in time. There are many books written about the old testament and most of these go back to only about 900AD or so.

The earliest known writings that connect the more recent versions go back only to the Greek Septuagint (4th century C.E. and coincidental to the time of Constantine) and the Masoretic text (7th to 10th century C.E.) and both of which were written entirely in Greek (the known scholarly language at the time). There have been many revisions (exclusions and inclusions) since.

Now there are 'alleged' fragments that tie the Septuagint to the B.C. era. I, John Galt, an objectivist and an archeologist (who, by the way, hold many other titles by design), reject this fragmentary evidence as either insubstantial or contrived.

So in response to your question...Yes, it is possible 'old testament' fables were written FOLLOWING 'new testament' fables. Why not?

John (the theologian) Galt.