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Politics : Foreign Affairs Discussion Group -- Ignore unavailable to you. Want to Upgrade?


To: Nadine Carroll who wrote (187731)5/30/2006 5:26:30 PM
From: Sun Tzu  Read Replies (1) | Respond to of 281500
 
>> The US didn't even begin supplying Israel with arms until after 1967, and it was to counterbalance the huge supplies the USSR was sending the Arabs.

Why? It seems that Israel was substantially stronger. Why did not US let a parity be achieved though Russian arms sale to Arabs?

>> The Arabs switched from conventional to terror wars.

Why? Was it perhaps because they could not possibly match Israel in conventional military, i.e. no parity of power?