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Politics : Formerly About Advanced Micro Devices -- Ignore unavailable to you. Want to Upgrade?


To: combjelly who wrote (340043)6/11/2007 12:18:38 PM
From: SilentZ  Read Replies (2) | Respond to of 1577864
 
>Lincoln's Emancipation Proclamation was restricted to the South for a reason. If he had made it true for the rest of the country, he would have made problems for himself.

So where was there sanctioned slavery in the North in the 1860s?

-Z



To: combjelly who wrote (340043)6/11/2007 2:52:03 PM
From: tejek  Respond to of 1577864
 
Yes, it might have been. Blacks were not allowed to vote until 1870:"

And, yet, they had that right before then in all of the South. Oh, not because of the good heartedness of the Southerners. The fact of the matter is that blacks in the North had only marginally more rights than they had in the South before the war. And arguably less afterwards.

Lincoln's Emancipation Proclamation was restricted to the South for a reason. If he had made it true for the rest of the country, he would have made problems for himself.


In reality, the EP did not free any slaves until Union soldiers took control of an area and in many cases, until the Civil War was over. So when did southern blacks first vote.....1865 or 1866? That's not much of a lead.