To: andiron who wrote (82883 ) 6/20/2007 5:51:16 PM From: Oblomov Respond to of 110194 Markets exist whether or not the ruling class permits them to operate. Under Marx's historical materialism, all historical changes are the are a consequence of the mode of production. But how is the mode of production established? Isn't the mode of production different today than in 1849? If so, isn't it possible to attribute these changes to the inventions of specific people, such as Henry Ford, W. Edward Deming, Thomas Edison, and Henry Bessemer...rather than mysterious forces? Under Marxism, there are not supposed to be things that have a market value without a use value (labor theory of value). How do you explain the fact that a Picasso sells for $40 MM? What can you use it for? How can you explain the value of the shares of Berkshire Hathaway, which pays no dividend, or even a dividend-paying stock? Marx's uncle was Lion Phillips, who founded what became the Phillips Electric Company (yes, Marx got financial life support from his uncle, among several others). His uncle was rather enlightened in his views on the treatment of workers, and invited Marx several times to visit his factories, but he declined each time. In fact there is no record of Marx visiting a factory, mill, or mine his whole life. Marxism was an intellectual's reaction against modernity, and so it was adopted readily in the countries that were most feudal in nature: Russia, China, Kampuchea, etc. It allowed the ruling class to maintain the feudal caste system while centralizing power. It let them industrialize the economy while putting a "scientific", modern gloss on the old system of vassalage. Even though Marx made some big methodology errors in Kapital, at least he tried to use empirical reasoning to make his points. That's more than can be said for his epigones.