SI
SI
discoversearch

We've detected that you're using an ad content blocking browser plug-in or feature. Ads provide a critical source of revenue to the continued operation of Silicon Investor.  We ask that you disable ad blocking while on Silicon Investor in the best interests of our community.  If you are not using an ad blocker but are still receiving this message, make sure your browser's tracking protection is set to the 'standard' level.
Technology Stocks : Qualcomm Moderated Thread - please read rules before posting -- Ignore unavailable to you. Want to Upgrade?


To: engineer who wrote (76790)5/1/2008 3:36:36 PM
From: planetsurf  Respond to of 196822
 
BOM = $200
ODM builds for $225 sells to NOK< ays 5% royalty = $11.25
NOK buys at $225, resells to carrier for $250

So $11.50 on $250 sale is really 3.75% or so.


Using your scenario, assuming NOK is currently at what I believe to be their established rate of ~3.25% now, (when they were actually paying that is) they will pay MORE to QCOM! Great news!

Even if the numbers are all a little off, and NOK gets away with paying a little less, I think this is a scenario that benefits QCOM.



To: engineer who wrote (76790)5/1/2008 3:47:37 PM
From: slacker711  Respond to of 196822
 
100% CDMA, about 60% 3G and GSM and growing.

I agree with the 100% and growing parts of your statement, but disagree strongly with the 60% of 3G and GSM portion.

If 60% of Nokia's 3G production was handled by an ODM that would mean that Q was getting paid on 60% of Nokia's production. If you work through the numbers that Q has provided (25-30 cents of Nokia impact this year, WCDMA units and approximate ASP's), you would find that this is patently false.

Note that I'm not even relying on Nokia's statements/numbers. Your statement is impossible unless you think that there is something drastically wrong with Q's own numbers.

Slacker



To: engineer who wrote (76790)5/1/2008 5:22:40 PM
From: DanD  Respond to of 196822
 
In this scenario, couldn't Nokia underpay an OEM for WCDMA phones and overpay for GSM phones (or Hand Jobs for that matter) to escape even more royalties?

How can they not pay on the final sales price of the phone? Would this loophole have to be written in the agreement somewhere? Or is this some standard practice?

Dan D.