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Politics : Foreign Affairs Discussion Group -- Ignore unavailable to you. Want to Upgrade?

To: c.hinton who wrote (263360)	5/5/2008 9:49:00 AM
From: Sdgla	Read Replies (1) \| Respond to of 281500

It only took you 2 posts to fill Nadines prediction : <Of course, those doing the bandying don't want to look at Karsh's footnotes. They will just yell, Liar! Zionist! Jew! >

To: c.hinton who wrote (263360)	5/5/2008 12:38:54 PM
From: Nadine Carroll	Read Replies (1) \| Respond to of 281500

nadine dont be silly...... in 1934 there were 34 ,000 jews in jerusalem .....do you claim the 5,000,000 jews in israel today are all decended from them ? Because, you see, the definition of "colonization" involves the settlement of a NON-NATIVE people leaving their mother country to live in a country where they have not lived before. For example, when English traveled to the English parts of North America, they were "colonists" and they created "colonies". I ask again - were the Jews of Jerusalem and Hebron "natives" or "colonists"? If you can't answer, then maybe your definition is incorrect. Certainly most Israeli Jews are descended from people who were living elsewhere than Palestine in 1920. But I have a newsflash for you - this is true of the Palestinians, too, whether in Israel, Gaza, the WB, or the various "refugee camps" as well. There was a huge influx of Arab immigration into Palestine between the wars. They came for jobs and because living conditions were vastly better. The 5 or 6 million Palestinians (10 million when you count Jordanians) are not natural increase from the 600,000 Arabs in Palestine in 1920 either.