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Politics : Formerly About Advanced Micro Devices -- Ignore unavailable to you. Want to Upgrade?


To: Tenchusatsu who wrote (707983)4/8/2013 10:14:43 PM
From: Bilow  Respond to of 1577901
 
Hi Tenchusatsu; Re 92 US 542, this is an interesting discussion.

My read is that this court said that the 2nd and 1st amendments are restrictions on the activity of the national government not a guarantee for citizens to be free of restrictions by the state governments. I.e.:

"The second and tenth counts are equally defective. The right there specified is that of 'bearing arms for a lawful purpose.' This is not a right granted by the Constitution. Neither is it in any manner dependent upon that instrument for its existence. The second amendment declares that it shall not be infringed; but this, as has been seen, means no more than that it shall not be infringed by Congress. This is one of the amendments that has no other effect than to restrict the powers of the national government, leaving the people to look for their protection against any violation by their fellow-citizens of the rights it recognizes, to what is called, in The City of New York v. Miln, 11 Pet. 139, the 'powers which relate to merely municipal legislation, or what was, perhaps, more properly called internal police,' 'not surrendered or restrained' by the Constituton of the United States."
openjurist.org

The 1st amendment and 2nd amendment seem to differ in what they restrict:

Pretty clear that the 1st amendment is a restriction on Congress but not a restriction on the activity of States:

Congress shall make no law respecting an establishment of religion, or prohibiting the free exercise thereof; or abridging the freedom of speech, or of the press; or the right of the people peaceably to assemble, and to petition the Government for a redress of grievances.

But the 2nd amendment has no "Congress shall make no law" provision so it defines a "right of the people":

A well regulated Militia, being necessary to the security of a free State, the right of the people to keep and bear Arms, shall not be infringed.

On the other hand, the preamble to the Bill of Rights clearly specifies that the restrictions are on Congress (and therefore not on the States):

Congress of the United States begun and held at the City of New-York, on Wednesday the fourth of March, one thousand seven hundred and eighty nine THE Conventions of a number of the States, having at the time of their adopting the Constitution, expressed a desire, in order to prevent misconstruction or abuse of its powers, that further declaratory and restrictive clauses should be added: And as extending the ground of public confidence in the Government, will best ensure the beneficent ends of its institution.
-- Carl



To: Tenchusatsu who wrote (707983)4/8/2013 10:15:28 PM
From: tejek  Read Replies (1) | Respond to of 1577901
 
In United States v. Cruikshank, 92 U.S. 542 (1875), the Supreme Court ruled that "[bearing arms for a lawful purpose] is not a right granted by the Constitution.
That's because the court considered that right to have already existed before the Constitution.

By the way, the court in that case said the exact same thing about the 1st amendment.


All I am pointing out is that interpretation didn't come out of thin air.