To: Tom Trader who wrote (30462 ) 12/5/1997 12:21:00 PM From: Esteban Read Replies (1) | Respond to of 58727
Tom, Would you mind answering a lingering question I've had about futures trading that will no doubt underline my ignorance of the subject? It has to do with the fair value concept. I already understand that fair value is based on the interest that would be paid on margin till the expiration date, etc. and that on the contract expiration date the futures contract is valued the same as cash. The practical effect of this seems to me to be different depending on whether your position is long or short, and this is where I get confused. Consider a hypothetical example where I buy one contract and at the same time sell one contract of spz on the date that it becomes the near contract, with the intention of holding both of them to expiration, at which time I convert to cash. Say the fill price is at fair value of 10. Now assume that the market is in a trading range for the entire time and by some wierd coincidence when the contract expires, the underlying cash market is at the exact same level as the day I bought and sold the 2 contracts, or 10 points below the original fill price at the now fair value spread of 0. It appears to me that I have lost 10 points on the long position, and gained 10 points on the short position for a net of zero. It seems to me that this scenario favors the short postion in a flat market. This is the point I don't understand, because it would be too easy to go short futures and long cash on every contract and pocket the difference on expiration. Maybe there's not enough difference to make the venture worthwhile, but from an academic point of view it would seem there is a bearish bias to the futures market. Am I thinking correctly on this subject? Esteban