To: dvdw© who wrote (145601 ) 1/20/2019 5:17:46 PM From: TobagoJack Read Replies (1) | Respond to of 218280 am wondering, and do not know the answer and have not spent but a little time thinking about it, that does it necessarily follow that should country A and B choose per free-will to trade in currency of country A, the act would automatically cause A's currency to be the 'reserve currency' with all the monetary ramifications wikipedia defined 'reserve currency' so en.wikipedia.org <<A reserve currency (or anchor currency ) is a currency that is held in significant quantities by governments and institutions as part of their foreign exchange reserves . The reserve currency is commonly used in international transactions, international investments and all aspects of the global economy. It is often considered a hard currency or safe-haven currency . People who live in a country that issues a reserve currency can purchase imports and borrow across borders more cheaply than people in other nations because they do not need to exchange their currency to do so. >> Seems Nigeria and India can choose to deal the trade in either own respective currencies or one or the other, as long as not in third-party currency, and that would not necessarily cause either and or both currencies to be a reserve currency. The issue then becomes the 'goodness' of the currency and what happens given any persistent trade deficit / surplus, to which perhaps it be proper that nations ought not be allowed to run a persistent overall deficit vs all trade partners as aggregate. If so, the spendthrift would one day hit the ceiling and suffer chronic issues or cardiac event. Should the spendthrift keep innovating and upgrade / update industrial and or natural resource portfolio so as to be always-in-demand, no problems, or that it can force others to accept own currency, eventually issues. I guess.