To: Rick who wrote (849 ) 2/3/1998 1:18:00 AM From: Robert Graham Read Replies (1) | Respond to of 940
[Part II] Your description of the MM in options indicates a lack of knowledge to me on what is involved in determing option prices. Also, since when for every transaction there is a "winner" or "loser"? Who told you this??? Seriously. This is nonsense. That "winner" you speak of can become the next trade's loser. Both can go home losers. Or that "winner" who initially sold that option made their profit on a long term hold while the purchaser of that option may have been a scalper that turned around and sold it on a 1/2 point pop. In this case both are winners. Think about this and what this means. What matters is first what the option seller purchased the option at compared to the sale price. Most importantly, success is defined by what the trader goes home with: a loss or a profit. Isn't this how you define these terms? I hope so. Furthermore, I wish the world was as simple as one buyer, one seller, and one market maker. But this is not the case. Have you ever been on the floor of an exchange? Have you ever at least read about what this is like? I do not think so. There are many traders of the floor of the options exchange. I think you are confusing the NASDAQ MM with the MM from the CBOE for instance. They are not the same. The options exchange is made up of many traders on the floor of an exchange, both individual traders and firms that specialize in making a market in an option. Each trader is vying for those options that are being bought and sold. Do you know what this means? That any one of them can take the other side of the option transaction. Any one of them can step up to the plate and take the other side. A sale for instance can happen at the bid or between the bid and ask. Do you know what determines the current bid and ask? The most recent highest bid and lowest found on the floor of the exchange. The options market is an auction market like the commodities market in this sense, and definitely not anything like the NASDAQ. Only on illiquid options will the spread be determined by a MM. A sale happens when a bid of one trader meets the ask of another, a meeting of the minds so to speak. So when an option transacts at a price, there is both a buyer and a seller. Do you know this market to be any different? I think you need to understand more about auction markets. As far as who pays for this "comission", this is not as neatly defined. The only time the spread means anything as something significant is for those intraday edge traders that sit on the floor and trade for the juice by taking the MM position in the trade, and the MM themselves. Also there are those players that make intraday scalps on a fraction of a point of change in the option. As time increases, so does the probability of the option to move in value. So by the time the trader unloads, his selling price may even be at the same price he purchased the option at. The greater the time period, the greater the possble gain (that is why there is a time premium in the option), and therefore the greater possibility that the move in the price of the option will be very large compares to the spread at the time the option was initially purchased. So for short term intraday trades, I agree that the spread can become a significant obstacle to a profit for the intraday trader, depending on the volitility of the option that day and the size of the spread. When I trade options, I trade them to increase in value much more than the spread. Still, due to the actual volitility of the option, I can much of the time sell the option for what I paid for it. So are you saying that I shared in the "cost" of th spread of this option? I do not think so, at least in a very real and practical sense. This is because you are underestimating the most essential component of options plays which is volitility. Even intraday volitility can render the spread inconsequential depending on when you choose to enter the option. So if you as an options trader sell the option for what you paid for it due to volitility, why do you consider this a "cost"? The cost in effect has been passed on to someone else like those scalpers, edge traders, and possibly even the MM of the option. You seem to be quoting some common phrases bandied about by traders and utilize them in an improper context like the statement "options is a zero sum game" you made in that post of yours to Melissa. However, I will end here. I do not wish to become a book on optiions trading. That is your job to find this out. There are many books available that were written for this purpose. But I assure you Melissa understands options more than many do who play with options. Perhaps she was giving you observations instead of the supporting rational that would satisfy you. But I think she expected you to fill in some of the blanks, or at least ask her intelligent questions about some of what she was said. I also suspect that she thought you were aware of the risks that involve options which goes without saying. But then this is where she may have made her mistake. I highly recommend the book "Sure Thing Options Trading" by George Angell for you to read. Who knows? You may end up learning something you do not know. I think this is a definite possibility. Bob Graham