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Strategies & Market Trends : Roger's 1998 Short Picks -- Ignore unavailable to you. Want to Upgrade?


To: Oeconomicus who wrote (4494)3/8/1998 11:27:00 PM
From: dpl  Respond to of 18691
 
>dpl, which survey are you quoting? Barron's publishes four different surveys every
week. Consensus,Inc's survey shows 77% bullish opinion while AAII shows only
13% bears.<

Investors intelligence has been doing this since 1955.They have the most consistence data.Their numbers are good for tops and great for bottoms.You can get the numbers in Investors Daily.
Major markets have always had two things before they end.

1.a huge amount of bullishness

2.a huge top.

I see none of these right now.Maybe it will be different this time?

What is happening in the LT in this market has happened
twice before.In fact this decade looks so similar to the last decades of
those huge bulls it is scary.

The market has huge multi decade bull moves followed by long periods of
very bad markets. After the 1920's it took about 25 years to pass it's 1929 peak.After the
next huge bull that ended in the late 1960's it took 16 years(1982) to come
back.

These huge bulls always end the same way.You have a decade where the
"public" discovers the stock market and believes it can only go up.

We have all heard ot the 1920's where the "public" discovered stocks on
margin but they also bought huge amounts of "trusts"(funds) also.

In the 1960's(the go go years) the public fell in love with stocks
funds.(sound familiar?)

This is happening in the 1990's with one difference.IT IS FAR BIGGER.

The trouble with these huge bulls is they can go a lot higher than one can imagine.
If fact if
this is a true "bubble" this market should go a lot higher.



To: Oeconomicus who wrote (4494)3/9/1998 8:33:00 AM
From: tom pope  Respond to of 18691
 
Bob, very good point re Roth IRAS - if a version of the national sales tax makes it, the Roth-ites wind up with the wrong side of an expensive bargain.

Another point is that large-scale movement into Roths will reduce liquidity available for investment because of the need to pay taxes on the converted amount. I wonder if this effect has been quantified? Or would it be negligible in relation to the vast amount of 401k money sloshing in every month?