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To: Mark A. Stang who wrote (2490)6/17/1998 3:52:00 PM
From: Alomex  Read Replies (2) | Respond to of 3115
 

This is very strange. Could not have been a market-maker buy or a market order by anybody.

Nothing strange to it. Prearranged trades follow that pattern.

For example a prearranged trade from two holding companies/mutual funds. Say, if I want to transfer losses from my holding company A to my highly profitable holding company B, I place a 100k shares sell order at $18 for the shares owned by company A (bought at $14) and a buy order from company B for same amount and price.

In the process I might pick up some stop orders for a few thousand shares, but all in all the vast majority of the A shares are bought and now owned by company B.

Now company A has reduced it losses by $400K while company B has reduced its gains by $400K.

Voila!